Circle the correct answer:

1. A blood glucose check should be done on EVERY seizure patient with a GCS under 15.

1. True
2. False

2. The first treatment a pediatric asystole patient should receive is immediate atropine administration.

1. True
2. False

3. The modified GCS for pediatrics includes assessing the following:

1. Eye opening, facial droop, verbal response
2. Verbal response, eye opening, motor response
3. Crying, AVPU, eye opening
4. Motor response, facial droop, verbal response

4. Adult paddles can be used on children weighing:

1. <10 kg
2. >10 kg
3. Any Weight
4. Never on Children

5. A Combitube can be used in place of endotracheal intubation anytime the provider thinks it's necessary.

1. True
2. False

6. Neonatal resuscitation may include the following except:

1. ETT suctioning to clear meconium up to 3 times, and maintaining ETT in place if infant remains limp
2. Chest compressions if heart rate is 60-80 and not rapidly increasing
3. Immediate medication therapy if infant is not active
4. Dry, warm, position, and stimulate patient to breathe

7. A patient suspected of having an Acute Myocardial Infarction should receive the following:

1. Nitroglycerine, immediate transport to the nearest facility, Lidocaine 1mg/kg IV
2. Aspirin only, immediate transport to nearest angioplasty center.
3. Up to 3 Nitroglycerine, Morphine 5mg IV, Aspirin 324mg PO
4. Up to 3 Nitroglycerine, Aspirin 324mg PO, transport to the nearest angioplasty Center

8. A patient with respiratory distress and a history of COPD may receive Albuterol 2.5 mg AND Ipratropium 0.5 mg combined in an SVN.

1. True
2. False

9. Appropriate treatment for a 3 year old child in V-Fib may include:

1. Epinephrine 0.01mg/kg 1:10,000
2. Epinephrine 0.1 mg/kg 1:1000
3. Defibrillation at 4j/kg after each medication
4. All the Above

10. A patient with 1mm or more of ST elevation in any lead except aVR should be treated according to the Suspected acute Myocardial Infarction Protocol.

1. True
2. False

11. Which of the following is not considered an accurate indicator of poor perfusion in an infant?

1. Blood Pressure
2. Capillary refill > 2 seconds
3. Altered Mental status
4. Cyanotic distal extremities

12. ALS may not turn over care of a patient to BLS if:

1. the mechanism of injury warrants ALS care
2. the chief complaint warrants ALS care
3. ALS intervention may be required
4. All the above

13. Which of the following are drugs that may be used to treat an adult patient in V-tach with a pulse?

1. Lidocaine, Procainimide, Bretylium
2. Lidocaine, Mag Sulfate, Procainimide
3. Bretylium, Lidocaine, Amiodarone
4. Epinephrine, Lidocaine, Procainimide

14. The Southern Tier Regional EMS Pediatric Protocols apply to patients under the age of:

1. 8
2. 17
3. 18
4. 21

15. An asthma patient has received an albuterol / ipratropium treatment with little relief. The next Course of action should be:

1. A second albuterol / ipratropium treatment
2. Contact medical control
3. A second albuterol only treatment
4. A second ipratropium only treatment

16. Approved secondary confirmation devices for confirming proper placement of an ET tube include:

1. Bulb style Esophageal Detector Device; Colorimetric end tidal CO2 detector
2. Auscultating lung sounds with stethoscope; condensation visible in ET tube
3. Esophageal Detector Device; Non–Colorimetric end tidal CO2 detector
4. Syringe style Esophageal Detector Device only.

17. A patient with signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema has a systolic BP of 280. Treatment prior to calling medical control may consist of:

1. Nitroglycerine every 3 minutes
2. Nitroglycerine every 3 minutes, furosemide 40 mg IV, Morphine 5 mg IV
3. Furosemide 40 mg IV, Dopamine 1-5 mcg/kg/min
4. Nitroglycerine only if patient is having chest pain as well

18. The only time a controlled substance such as diazepam may be given without a medical control order is for an actively seizing patient.

1. True
2. False

19. Treatment for low blood glucose in a pediatric patient occurs when BG levels fall below:

1. 90
2. 80
3. 70
4. 60

20. According to the Obstructed Airway protocol, after all other attempts to clear an obstruction have failed, you may use an ET tube to push the obstruction into the right mainstem bronchus.

1. True
2. False

19. A length-based tape should be used to determine appropriate equipment and drug dosages for pediatric patients.

1. True
2. False

20. An elderly female is found on the floor with a GCS of 7. After routine medical care, a blood glucose check shows a reading of 47. Treatment may consist of:

1. 50 mg Thiamine, 2 mg Narcan
2. 100 mg Thiamine, D50, 2 mg Narcan
3. 2 mg Narcan only
4. D50 only

21. The correct initial dosage of epinephrine for a 4 year old patient in anaphylaxis is:

1. 0.01 mg/kg 1:10,000
2. 0.1 mg/kg 1:1,000
3. 0.01 mg/kg 1:1,000
4. 0.1 mg/kg 1:10,000

22. Treatment of a 4 year old with respiratory distress and a history of asthma may include:

1. Albuterol SVN
2. Ipratropium SVN
3. Epinephrine 1:1000 0.01 mg/kg SQ
4. All the Above

23. A stable adult patient in V-Tach can be given a bolus of lidocaine prior to contacting Medical Control.

1. True
2. False

24. A 24 year old female shows SVT on the monitor. She complains of feeling like her heart is racing, and she is slightly dizzy. The most appropriate treatment for her is:

1. Contact medical control for adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
2. Sedation and cardioversion
3. Carotid massage and Adenosine 6 mg
4. Adenosine 12 mg repeated once

25. A patient in Pulseless Electrical Activity should receive a fluid bolus of:

1. 250 cc NS
2. 300 cc LR
3. 500 cc NS
4. 500 cc LR

26. Endotracheal meconium aspiration can be performed on a neonate up to ____ times.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

27. A pediatric fluid bolus should be:

1. 250 cc, given slowly
2. 100 cc, rapidly and repeated once
3. 20cc/kg, given over 1 hour
4. 20cc/kg rapidly

28. When transferring care of a patient from ALS to BLS:

1. An ALS assessment must be completed, and the findings documented on the ALS PCR.
2. ALS must contact Medical Control in all cases before releasing patient to BLS
3. ALS may allow the patient to be transported by a CFR if Medical Control is contacted.
4. All the Above

29. When treating a pediatric patient, the following apply:

1. Avoid separating the patient from caregivers
2. Airway management and Oxygen therapy are of primary importance
3. Transport should occur early and treatment done en route
4. All the above

30. A patient with a suspected Acute MI should be transported to:

1. angioplasty center of patient's choice
2. nearest facility after contacting Medical Control
3. angioplasty center after calling Medical Control at the angioplasty center
4. angioplasty center after contacting usual Medical Control

31. An unstable adult patient with a wide complex tachycardia should be cardioverted at:

1. 50
2. 100
3. 200
4. 300

32. A 50 year old male patient has a heart rate of 36, chest pain, dyspnea, and pulmonary edema. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is:

1. IV access, Atropine 1mg IV
2. IV access, sedation, transcutaneous pacing
3. Contact Medical Control for immediate transcutaneous pacing
4. IV access, Atropine 0.5 mg

33. A good physical assessment is important on a tachypneic patient because hyperventilators may believe they are having an allergic reaction or an asthma attack.

1. True
2. False

34. When treating a patient with a suspected stroke:

1. Transport rapidly to nearest appropriate facility
2. Perform Cincinnati Stroke Scale and Fibrinolytic Therapy Risk Assessment
3. Do all treatment in route if possible
4. All the above

35. Which of the following would NOT cause a patient to meet Major Trauma Criteria?

1. Glasgow Coma Scale of less than 14
2. Motorcycle crash
3. Fall of 15 feet
4. Bilateral humerus fractures

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